Article 5C3NG Primum Non Nocere? Who?

Primum Non Nocere? Who?

by
business_kid
from LinuxQuestions.org on (#5C3NG)
This latin phrase is attributed to Hippocrates, but I want to dispute that, and consult the collective wisdom of the nerds, Gurus, Veterans, Geeks and <expletive deleted> who pass through here.

Hippocrates lived 460BC - 370BC. At this stage, the Romans had probably stopped swinging from tree to tree, but they were a bit better than a small fishing village on the Tiber, but no player on the world stage.

To expect Hippocrates, a Greek to know Latin would be a bit like Vladimir a Russian Medic to know Scots Gaelic, or Navajo. Latin was the language of the plebs, or lowest rung of society. I don't even know if the Romans had invented higher rungs at that stage.

So Hippocrates did not say "Primum Non Nocere." If he did, he wouldn't have known what it meant. So who did, or what did Hippocrates actually say?

/Personal theory:
I can imagine Hippocrates' Greek oath being translated into English, and then being re-translated/obfuscated into a classical language by some toffee nosed type with his head up his derriere. Likely those toffee nosed types only knew Latin because he was too dumb to be taught Greek. It's a plausible explanation for the language of the illiterate being pawned off as a Classical Language today.latest?d=yIl2AUoC8zA latest?i=xKYYXo5gEug:SRL1SbzBwPQ:F7zBnMy latest?i=xKYYXo5gEug:SRL1SbzBwPQ:V_sGLiP latest?d=qj6IDK7rITs latest?i=xKYYXo5gEug:SRL1SbzBwPQ:gIN9vFwxKYYXo5gEug
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